Section 1.3
Exposing the Edomite Christ
In my etymological studies I have learned that the letter
'J' (OR EVEN its phonetic equivalent) did not exist in ANY language until
about five hundred years ago. There never has been, and still is not,
a letter in Hebrew that is the phonetic equivalent to our modern day letter
'J'. How is it that Hebrew names in the 'Old Testament' (which existed
thousands of years ago, not merely hundreds) have come to be transliterated
(and thereby pronounced) by/with the letter 'J'; particularly in regard
to the very name of the Messiah himself? Let's remember that there is
"NO OTHER NAME UNDER HEAVEN GIVEN UNTO MEN WHEREBY WE MAY BE SAVED"
Acts 4:12. Therefore this issue is of EXTREME IMPORTANCE for those who
wish to know and propagate THE TRUTH as opposed to perpetuate lies!
It seems that the letter 'J' first made entrance into language, being translated into Spanish, as a backwards Greek 'iota' (pronounced ee'ota and is the Greek lower case 'i' which has a tail which is REVERSE from our modern day, lower case 'j'). In Spanish, where the letter seems to have made its first real entrance, the letter 'j' is called a jota (pronounced 'hota' in English). The Greek lower case iota (pronounced 'ee ota') looks EXACTLY like a backwards lower case 'j' and it is therefore surmised by myself as a result of my research (and possibly other scholars but I never found much in this regard as it seems unimportant to the world how this deception became embedded in language) that the letter 'j' came into existence first as a perverted Greek letter 'iota' (or: more simply put my thesis is that the Spanish 'jota'...pronounced hota......which later became the English 'jay'...came from the Greek letter 'iota', if you will) . The Spanish 'J' (always pronounced as the English, hard 'H') however is NOT phonetically equivalent to either its progenitor, the iota, (pronounced as a Y or I), OR our current English form we pronounce as 'Jay', today.
In fact, as crazy as it sounds, every Hebrew name in the Bible that is transliterated with a 'j' (whether in Spanish OR English) is actually a sound that is the phonetic equivalent to the letter 'Y' (in all three languages). Why do English (or Spanish) translators use a 'J', which has no phonetic equivalent in either Hebrew or Greek, to transliterate their equivalent to our letter Y (or the Spanish AND Greek 'i')? I believe the only reason this is the state of affairs in the world is that Satan had to get his monumental, PILLAR OF WORLD DECEPTION, 'Jesus' error institutionalized somehow into WORLD LANGUAGE for the purpose of a UNIVERSAL FAITH DECEPTION to occur after the truth has been removed. So all the 'Y' sounds of the Hebrew and Greek were anglicized (perverted) by using the Spanish/English 'J' as opposed to the 'i' or 'Y' to transliterate these Greek and Hebrew sounds. This long practiced tradition has now made so many inroads into world culture that it is not only difficult to correct, but the whole error is not even known to exist...or if pointed out is dismissed as trivial or even divisive.
Despite how trivial or even divisive some may consider the truth to be, since it's clear that the name of 'Jesus' (regardless of the choice of Spanish or English pronunciation) could not have possibly existed more than five hundred years ago, one must then wonder how and why the name 'Jesus' became so entrenched in our understanding of the Hebrew Messiah in the first place. Is this the true name, or even a close approximation, of the Messiah who lived in the Middle East some two thousand years ago and who had been the subject of prophecy (his name being SPECIFICALLY GIVEN in advance) for nearly two thousand years before that? And most importantly, does it make any practical difference? How significant can it be?
As it turns out, 'Jesus' is a transliteration that comes not from the original Hebrew transcripts but from the much later Greek and Latin transliterations. Hence it is a transliteration of a transliteration; AT BEST, TWICE REMOVED from the original, phonetic pronunciation (since it was probably transliterated from Hebrew to Aramaic THEN into Greek and THEN into Latin, THEN into Spanish and THEN into our English form...each time taking on another CHANGE...so the reality is that 'jesus' is a name that is AT LEAST THREE TIMES REMOVED FROM THE ORIGINAL TRUTH!)...this is a breach of translational rules. For instance, the name spelled in Hebrew, (first name) yod, tsiyon, chet, kaph , (sir name) rosh, bet, yod, nun, are properly and most literally transliterated as: ytzchak rbyn better phoneticized into English as Yitzak Rabin (I am certainly not trying to exalt this devil but am merely using his name as an example). Clearly very close to the same phoneticization as the Hebrew letters spelled out in English above. It is therefore a CORRECT English transliteration of the Hebrew Name (which has a SIGNIFICANT meaning associated with the name ACCORDING TO its pronunciation).
A translation or a transliteration must come from the original source to be most accurate; this is the proper rule of translation. A translation that is even one source removed from its original language allows for too much corruption of the original. For instance if we take the above name example and transliterate that into Greek and then from Greek to English, we could end up with a nasty distortion of the pronunciation. Since names mean things in Hebrew, you could end up saying something like: 'he's a big joke' instead of what it (probably) really is meant to reflect, something along the lines of 'he laughs a lot' or even 'he laughs greatly'. Skewing the pronunciation so as to mean 'he's a big joke' (despite how ironically true) would be an obvious offense (though it may be overlooked if done in obvious IGNORANCE) to the one being spoken of. It could be overlooked if done in ignorance, but once the truth is known, it is an obvious insult; is it not? Ok now, despite the admittedly poor example to unerline my point, if you loved this person, would you continue observing a TRADITION which is not only insulting but corrupts his name into a PERVERSION? So my question is: Who do you love really, your tradition or the Messiah Yahwshua? Grow up! The worship of a lie over the truth IS IDOLATRY! We will see two opposing Messiah's clearly in prophecy, one is named Yahwshua (as will be demonstrated directly) and the other will come in his own name while PERVERTING the truth which ENABLES HIM. I am proposing that we may already know what that perverted name may be! We must at least be willing to ADMIT THE TRUTH regarding the name JESUS, that it KEEP US FROM SEEING THE GREATER TRUTHS HE CAME TO DELIVER, or we JUDGE OURSELVES through our unwillingness to judge RIGHTLY in the FULLNESS OF HIM!
So the standards we use for transliterating today (for everything but scripture it seems) are much greater in the sense that they rely upon the originals and not from translations of translations far removed from the original. If this is standard in the field of translation today as regards names, how much more so should it be for the testimony YHWH himself gives us in his self-revelatory plan for man where names have such great significance? Why should we continue to rely on ancient practices we KNOWN TO BE ERRONEOUS? More importantly, if those traditions can be demonstrated to take us away from truth as opposed to toward it (as the body of this thesis demonstrates), do we not have the RESPONSIBILITY TO REPENT...an obligation to change our course in order to reflect a more 'true' path; to demonstrate our having been SANCTIFIED by Truth....Especially if the people of the anti-Messiah to come, as demonstrated by THEIR DEEDS (which we shall look at in historical detail), can be clearly seen through prophecy to be fulfilling the Edomite prophecies of THE ANTI-MESSIAH WHO DESIRES TO SUPPLANT BOTH FATHER AND SON (both being called 'lord' and 'god' in false translations for this very reason)?
The Greek transliteration of the Hebrew name (which likely came from an Aramaic transliteration which itself came from the original Hebrew) was IHSOU and IHSOUS used interchangeably ('H' being the equivalent to our letter 'e'). This was then translated into Latin as Iesus...this detail becomes important later in REVERSE ENGINEERING HOW THIS ERROR CAME INTO BEING. From this Latin transliteration of the Greek transliteration we eventually wound up with the English transliteration Iesous in the Old English KJV; and finally from that came two different transliterations (depending on where the name was located). One was 'Joshua' and the other was 'Jesus' which leads us to another question: why TWO names for the SAME NAME in Hebrew? Allow me to shed some light on this issue. I believe Satan is trying to muddy the water in regard to DEEDS...what Messiah is COMING TO DO! (for which 'Joshua' had been DELIBERATELY RENAMED from 'Hoshea').
Iesous is the SAME English transliteration of the Greek word used for 'Joshua' in the Septuagint (the first Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible). It seems that when the King James translators did their ORIGINAL work, they had a simple rule (no doubt inspired by Satan): wherever they encountered the Greek name IHSOU or IHSOUS in the 'Old Testament' they translated it to Iesous (in the original, old English KJV) and that was later 'Anglicized' to 'Joshua.' Conversely, wherever they found the same name in the 'New Testament' Aramaic and Greek they also transliterated that same name first as Iesous but that name was later 'Anglicized' to 'Jesus' as opposed to Joshua. So, the same name was originally (in the Old English KJV) translated the SAME WAY but later when Anglicized was transliterated in two different ways, depending on where the name occurred in the text (either 'Old' or 'New' Testaments). This can be simply verified in two ways.
1. The Greek manuscripts can be consulted to verify that IHSOUS is the same name as used (originally by the KJV translators) for both Joshua and Jesus.
2. The later 'anglicized' version of the KJV can be referenced to see that the translators made an error that belied their rule for textual translation:
They anglicized the ORIGINALLY TRANSLATED (from Greek) name 'Iesous' in Hebrews 4:8 to 'Jesus'. What's the problem? Hebrews 4:8 is a clear reference to the 'Old Testament' person we now know today as Joshua!
Before this name was Anglicised to 'Jesus,' it seems the KJV translators overlooked the 'Old Testament' references to 'Joshua' in the book of Hebrews and rendered that as 'Jesus' rather than 'Joshua'. They obviously used the error of the LATIN VULGATE in order to justify DIVIDING THE NAME INTO TWO DIFFERENT NAMES; really a form of IDENTITY THEFT. The Latin vulgate translates the 'Old Testament' name as IOSUE from the Greek but the SAME HEBREW NAME TRANSLITERATED INTO GREEK THE VERY SAME WAY AS WELL, THE LATIN VULGATE CHANGED TO IESUS. This was obviously done during the time when Spain controlled the World and the inquisition groomed a climate of anti-semitism. We have the evidence STILL WITH US TODAY as the Latin vulgate still has the name of IESUS for that of IOSUE in Hebrews 4:8. The discrepencies were corrected in later versions to be consistent with their original rule of 'translational error. Those passages in LATER TRANSLATIONS now read: 'Joshua' as well. Keep in mind that both persons have the SAME HEBREW NAME...FOR A REASON and this dividing the name ERASES or DETRACTS from that SIGNIFICANCE.
This is what the translators are trying to ERASE from the record at SATANS BIDDING as told to us IN ADVANCE by YHWH in places like Jer. 8:8. As we shall see, in the prophecies regarding the Messiah (of whom 'Joshua' was RENAMED from 'hoshea' as an ante-type. Numbers 13:16), Both persons shared the same Hebrew name and neither have anything phonetically close to the sound of our modern letter 'J' (in either Spanish OR English) in them! But that is not the greatest offense, as we shall see; it's much more serious than mere pronunciation. Remember that in Hebrew, names have significant meanings attached to them.
Hence the original name of our Hebrew Messiah (and of the man who led the original Hebrews into the land but never gave them the promised rest we yet look forward to according to Hebrews 4...AND the name of the 'branch' who would BUILD THE TEMPLE in Zech 6) was first transliterated (probably into an Aramaic and then) into Greek as IHSOU or IHSOUS used interchangeably, and later into Latin as Iosue and Iesus, TWO DISTINCT NAMES...then AFTER the Latin Vulgate gave us a DIFFERENT TRANSLATIONS of the SAME NAME...that was TRANSLITERATED into English to follow this NEW ERROR as 'Joshua' in the Old Testament but as 'Jesus' in the New Testament...again DIVORCING THE SIGNIFICANCE OF THE NAME FROM PROPHECY AND SYMBOLOGY. Effectively striking from the record HALF of who messiah IS and what he shall DO.
Again, Hebrews 4:8 in the LATIN VULGATE, which was transliterated as 'Iesus' but is a CLEAR REFERENCE to the person of the Old Testament having the SAME HEBREW NAME but who is transliterated there as Iosue, IS THE SMOKING GUN which EXPOSES THIS DECEPTION. The translators of the ANGLICISED KJV (the ORIGINAL maintained a GREEK TRANSLATION) followed this ERROR OF THE VULGATE when they 'Anglicized' the name.
It appears that this earlier error was then COUPLED with the newly introduced 'j' to the Alphabet from a backwards, Greek 'iota' into Latin and then into Spanish as 'Jesus' (pronounced 'Hey-soos'), and then finally 'anglicized' as 'Jesus' (jee-zus). So what we can trace through etymological evidence is that the original Hebrew Name was poorly translated first into Greek (since Greek does not have the capacity to phoneticize the Hebrew 'sh' sound). Then from Greek into Latin which then made TWO DIFFERENT NAMES out of that Greek error. Then from Latin into Spanish to include the new addition to the alphabet, the letter 'j' (only pronounced as an English hard H rather than the Hebrew 'yod' which is the equivalent of the Y or I in Greek, Latin, Spanish AND English). And finally from the Spanish into the English form we have today with the sound of a 'jay'.
What does all this mean?
THE NAME 'JESUS' IS BASED UPON MULTIPLIED AND COMPOUNDED TRANSLATIONAL ERRORS that are NOW DOCUMENTED and traced from the etymological evidence in the translations themselves; IT IS A TRANSLATIONAL FORGERY! Again, if there is 'no other name under heaven given unto men whereby we may be saved', then this is of UTMOST IMPORTANCE! It may be alright for a baby who has been DECEIVED or who just has not learned that 'jesus' is a forgery to call upon that name, even as children ARE FIRST steeped in CULTURAL LIES about Santa who does not exist...but at some point THEY SHOULD LEARN THE TRUTH AND STOP PERPETUATING LIES THEMSELVES...this is what is done by anyone who LOVES THE TRUTH and has been called to SPIRITUAL MATURITY, this is a time for REPENTENCE from fables, myths, and LIES despite how 'comforting' they are to our PAGAN, CHILDLIKE MINDS; accept the truth and walk accordingly if you REALLY LOVE THE ONE WHO IS TRUTH PERSONIFIED!
This is the complicated history of where the name 'Jesus'
came from. It is far removed from its original pronunciation and most
importantly, the very significant meaning associated with that particular
Hebrew name is completely lost to us today! Let me suggest that this is
not an insignificant oversight but part of a multi millennial, Satanic
Conspiracy; AS WILL BECOME PAINFULLY CLEAR IN THE BODY OF THIS WORK.
We are merely beginning to see, in terms of spiritual deception, the outer
tip of a huge, submerged ice-berg. Since it's clear that the name 'Jesus'
is far removed from its original form and any significance that may have
been associated with it, we have to determine whether or not it makes
any practical difference to us today. In order to determine that we must
first ascertain the truth regarding what His name really is.
What is the name of Messiah, can we know for sure?
As I will demonstrate from scripture, the Greek transliteration IHSOUS used as the springboard from which we received TWO forms of the SAME NAME...Iosue/Joshua in the Old Testament and Iesus/Jesus in the New based upon the Greek translated into Latin and that subsequently translated into Spanish and then into English during the time of the Holy Roman/SPANISH EMPIRE (and its accompanying 'Inquisition') are meaningless fabrications which blind men to deep spiritual truths, keeping them in bondage to Satan’s World Deception through ignorance. The Hebrew name of the Messiah of Israel is very significant and was given to us IN ADVANCE (which is still with us today in the Hebrew text) so that we would be able to study and learn the difference between the one who comes in the name of the father and the one who comes in his own name. Aside from the fact that the book of Hebrews is CLEARLY EQUATING TWO MESSIAHS, the FIRST one which 'failed' and the SECOND WHOM WE AWAIT TO FINISH THE TASK,...which is QUITE SIGNIFICANT AND SHOULD NOT BE OVERLOOKED, there is EVEN MORE TO REFLECT UPON IN REGARD TO THE TRUTH OF THIS NAME...MUCH MORE!...But DO NOT FAIL TO MEDITATE ON THE FACT THAT THE BOOK OF HEBREWS IS TEACHING US THAT THE 'FIRST YAHWSHUA' WAS AN ANTE-TYPICAL FIGURE FOR US TO UNDERSTAND THE 'SECOND YAHWSHUA' and the ANCIENT PROMISE OF SABBATH of which HE IS MASTER! Yahwshua came first to 'spy out the land' even as did the first, but unlike the first, we by faith KNOW WHAT WE ARE WAITING FOR AS THEY WERE GIVEN FOR OUR INSTRUCTION!
The Hebrew name that the Greek translators transliterated into IHSOU (and from which we end up with TWO DIFFERENT NAMES) is easily and CORRECTLY translated directly into English today as Yhwshua (some other acceptable versions are introduced below as well...to differentiate from other close counterfeits that have recently been introduced from Aramaic). In Hebrew it is spelled: Yod, He, Waw, SHin, Ayin. All of the letters in Hebrew have an exact phonetic equivalent in English except for the Ayin which is a gutteral sound difficult for English speakers and is best transliterated with the UA as a dipthong. So we are able to phonetically reproduce this NAME with greater accuracy DIRECTLY into ENGLISH than can be doen from the later Greek transliteration that had its own issues. This name could never have been transliterated correctly from the Greek because it could not have been properly transliterated INTO Greek...at least at that time. Greek did not have the phonetic equivalent to the Hebrew letter 'shin' (our 'sh' sound as in YahwSHua) OR the Ayin. The Greek language lacked the ability to properly transliterate both those Hebrew letters. We on the other hand do have the ability to faithfully transliterate that letter with the phonetically correct combination of the English letters of 's' and 'h' in combination together (a sound that can not be made similarly through Latin or Spanish grammar, either). That being said, let's move on to see what I mean.
The name spelled in Hebrew: yod, heh, waw, shin, ayin; is the contraction of two Hebrew words transliterated:
YHWH and Hoshua (Hoshua being the name of Joshua/Yahwshua before Moses changed it; FOR A REASON!)
'YHWH' is the personal name of the Creator as we have
already seen and means 'he exists', and 'Hoshua' (sometimes transliterated
'Hoshea') is a verb which means 'to save' ergo:
Yahwshua means: 'YHWH saves' or HE EXISTS TO SAVE! Clearly he came in
his FATHERS NAME to do his bidding as the Master
himself made clear:
"I have come in My Father's name,
and you do not receive Me; if another shall come in his own name, you
will receive him. John 5:43
We shall look at the evidence to which he also pointed as that which bears
witness of him, as he states here:
Yahwshua (YHWH saves) answered them, "I told you, and you do not believe...the works that I do in My Father's name, these bear witness of Me. John 10:25
Let's consider the Scriptural evidence which explicitly tells us (in multiple scriptural witnesses) what the name of the Messiah would be in conjunction with WHAT HE SHALL DO, for the purpose of ESTABLISHING OUR FAITH UPON THE TRUTH WHICH WILL SANCTIFY US.
"Then he showed me Yahwshua (yod, heh, waw, shin ayin, incorrectly transliterated as 'Joshua' in the Old Testament) the high priest standing before the angel of YHWH, and Satan standing at his right hand to accuse him. And (the angel of) YHWH said to Satan, "YHWH rebuke you, Satan! Indeed, YHWH who has chosen Jerusalem rebukes you! Is this not a brand plucked from the fire?"
Now Yahwshua was clothed with filthy garments and standing before the angel. And he spoke and said to those who were standing before him saying, "Remove the filthy garments from him." Again he said to him, "See, I have taken your iniquity away from you and will clothe you with festal robes." A picture of the Messiah laying aside his carnal flesh for a glorified body as a result of the work he has been commissioned by the father to do as his High priest and Chosen King...a picture of VINDICATION AND TRIUMPH OF TRUTH!
Then I said, "Let them put a clean turban on his head." So they put a clean turban on his head and clothed him with garments, while the angel of YHWH was standing by. And the angel of YHWH admonished Yahwshua saying, "Thus says YHWH of hosts, 'If you will walk in My ways, and if you will perform My service, then you will also govern My house and also have charge of My courts, and I will grant you free access among these who are standing here. 'Now listen, Yahwshua the high priest, you and your friends who are sitting in front of you-- indeed men who are symbolic of things to come, for behold, I am going to bring in My servant the Branch." Zechariah 3:1-8
This account is understood by Bible students and scholars alike to be a clear prophecy regarding the Messiah. He came in the garment of sinful human flesh. Though he did not inherit rebellion and death from the authority of MAN who is UNDER SATANS AUTHORITY from the garden of eden, he took on a fleshly garment through his virgin BETROTHED mother...a betrothal to YHWH first and to her earthly husband SECOND. In this way he was FREE of the PENALTY of DISOBEDIENCE. He was the SECOND ADAM (merely created from 'earth' a bit differently than the first...still created from EARTH). He willfully came as the 'atoning sacrifice' which we will cover later.
Through obedience even to death, he changed his robes from the 'dirty' garment of FALLEN FLESH to the 'clean, festal robes' of INCORRUPTIBLE flesh...the corruptible flesh garment being exchanged for incorruptible body through OBEDIENCE to the 'play book.' He and the men that were with him are declared to be 'symbolic' of things yet to come; which the messenger elaborates on a bit by calling this 'anointed one' the 'Branch'. The 'Branch' has always been understood to be prophetic language referring to the Messiah ALONE and NO OTHER. Let's continue:
"And take silver and gold, make an ornate crown, and set it on the head of YHWH saves (Yahwshua) the son of YHWH's righteousness (Yahwzedek), the high priest. Then say to him, 'Thus says YHWH of hosts, BEHOLD THE MAN WHOSE NAME IS THE BRANCH, for He will branch out from where He is; and He will build the temple of YHWH. Yes, it is He who will build the temple of YHWH, and He who will bear the honor and sit and rule on His throne. Thus, He will be a priest on His throne, and the counsel of peace will be between the two offices." Zechariah 6:11-13
It is clear in this prophecy that the Messiah or 'Branch' shares the same name as the High Priest in our account. Clearly it states that the Messianic 'BRANCH' named 'Yahwshua' will build his own Temple and he will receive the honor for it. We know this because the physical 'Joshua' in this account DID NOT FULFILL THESE PROPHECIES therefore they are clearly referring to ANOTHER 'Joshua.' Also, this is a clear prophecy regarding the offices of 'High Priest' and 'King.' In the future when the Messiah sits on his throne...the one he himself oversees construction of in accordance with the details of the play book as seen above, there will be peace between these two offices (meaning the King and High Priest is the same Person in the order of Melchizedek as the book of Hebrews also states explicitly).
This prophetic promise, set in historical narrative, can not be mistaken to be anything other than a clear prophetic picture of the 'Branch' or Messiah who will come. Ergo YHWH is using Yahwshua (which means 'YHWH saves' in translation of this proper transliteration) in this historical narrative to demonstrate the superior, future reign of His Messiah which bears the SAME NAME ('yod, heh, waw, shin, ayin' transliterated erroneously as 'Joshua' in the 'Old Testament' and 'Jesus' in the 'New') SIMILARLY giving us MORE DETAIL REGARDING THE PROMISE OF SABBATH REST WHEN HE IS HIGH KING AND PRIEST!
Here's another example for our instruction:
"...from the tribe of Ephraim, Hoshea the son of Nun" Numbers 13:8
'Hoshea' here is spelled: heh, waw, shin, ayin...also transliterated 'Hoshua'...this is the masculine form of the verb (not a noun) meaning 'to save.'
"These are the names of the men whom Moses sent to spy out the land; but Moses called Hoshea the son of Nun, Yahwshua." Numbers 13:16
Here we have an easily overlooked clue which few ever contemplate. The name of Yahwshua (Joshua), who is an ante-type of Messiah according to Hebrews, was changed from the original name of 'Hoshua' (which again means 'to save') to 'Yahwshua', which means: 'YHWH saves', just before being commissioned by YHWH (through Moses) to first 'spy out,' and later to 'lead the people into'...the promised land; he made TWO 'ADVENTS' into the Land...yet failed to lead the people into the PROMISED SABBATH REST. He remains then an ANTE-TYPE of the FULFILLMENT of these promises by THE SAVIOR who shall YET LEAD US IN AS PROMISED and it is upon THESE PROMISES that we rely so that by FAITH we ENTER IN TODAY and are assured of it TAKING PLACE AS PROMISED IN THE FUTURE even as Hebrews four makes clear!
In the same way, Hebrews tells us that the Messiah Yahwshua, for whom this account is an ante-typical shadow, who has made one 'advent' into the land already with his sacrifice as a SPY, will return to lead us who await his return into the Promise which the first failed to secure. This is very important if one wishes to know the truths upon which faith should be built; the solid ground regarding the nature, character, and plan of YHWH...the truth which sanctifies us in preparation for the actual event...the REALITY BEHIND THE SHADOWS given for our INSTRUCTION IN FAITH!
The above arguments are more than amply sufficient to understand that the 'powerful right hand and outstretched arm' which YHWH used, and will use again in a much greater way in the future, is named 'Yahwshua' for the purpose of undertaking the task...and to be known by his people! In other words the name 'Yahwshua', which literally means "YHWH saves" was given by DIVINE APPOINTMENT! He came in the name of his father as described within the details and shadows of the contract! This is the ONLY WAY to distinguish between true and false! Who are you, oh little man, to think you can participate in changing the prophetic PLANS AND PURPOSES OF ALMIGHTY YHWH by keeping the children IGNORANT of these POWERFUL TRUTHS, AND NOT SUFFER SHAME through your continued, willful propagation of LIES in the face of this IMMUTABLE, OBJECTIVE EVIDENCE DIRECTLY FROM THE SCRIPTURES?!
Here's a bit more for the 'unconvinced rebels' out there.
In Ezekiel YHWH says that he will 'reveal' his outstretched arm to his
people once again, as he did in Egypt (Ez 20:33-38). But there's more.
Since we now know that the name of 'Jesus' is based on multiplied and
compounded translational errors which keep one from seeing and meditating
on these wonderful pictures of Messiah (and therefore who he REALLY is,
and what he will REALLY do) in scripture...let's look just a bit further.
Bear in mind that Yahwshua means 'YHWH saves' and would have been understood
that way by the Hebrew mind whenever heard or uttered (as well as bringing
the scriptural narratives discussed above into the mind of the hearer).
Let's consider a few more verses from the 'New Testament' regarding the
name of the Messiah who we now know is called Yahwshua (and means: YHWH
saves).
"But when he had considered this, behold, an angel of YHWH appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife; for that which has been conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. And she will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Yahwshua (YHWH saves), for it is He (the Father YHWH who sent this sacrificial, atoning lamb ACCORDING TO HIS PROMISES OF REDEMPTION!) who will save His people from their sins." Matthew 1:20-21
Surely Yahwshua is the 'Lamb of YHWH'. Surely YHWH shall save his people from their sin through his mighty hand and outstretched arm, Yahwshua as he has promised both prophetically and in ante-typical instruction. The Master himself declared:
"I have come in My Father's name...." John 5:43a
Yahwshua always recognized his role was to be obedient to the father...he even bore the fathers' name in his own; Yawhshua (YHWH saves!) and that is VERY SIGNIFICANT INDEED! Check out these IDENTICAL VERSES and then see the two New Testament references to them:
"I call upon YHWH who is worthy to be praised; And I am saved from my enemies. 2 Samuel 22:4
"I call upon YHWH who is worthy to be praised; And I am saved from my enemies. Psalm 18:3
for "Whoever will call upon the name of YHWH shall be saved. "Romans 10:13
...for there is no other name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved. Acts 4:12
Yahwshua is the one who purchased men for the Father YHWH by giving his life as a ransom. He is the 'door' by which men enter into relationship with the Father. And apart from 'YHWH saving' him, one can not know Father YHWH which is THE GOAL!
It seems to me that the true significance of the power associated with the name 'Yahwshua/YHWH saves' has been brought to light through these verses. The insignificance and exacerbating error of calling on 'Jesus' seems all too manifest. This understanding and required change certainly conflicts with the 'traditions of men' but then again my Master Yahwshua demonstrated at every turn that the traditions of men lead one astray to follow after the Devil! And we shall see the truth of just how that HAS HAPPENED already, by the end of this EXPOSING work.
*TECHNICAL NOTE for so called Messianics & Sacred Namers: Using the Aramaic form of the Hebrew name to transliterate the name as Y'shua or Yeshua as opposed to Yahwshua is at least as greivous an error as 'Jesus'. Why all the nit-picking? Well, as pointed out in the beginning of this chapter, a name in Hebrew has VERY SIGNIFICANT MEANING. Let's take a look at this seeming 'trifle' regarding transliteration to see exactly what's goin' on.
The name Y'shua or Yeshua are both English transliterations of either the Aramaic or (hyphenized) Hebrew word that means 'deliverance', as along the lines of being delivered to: 'safety,' 'welfare,' or 'prosperity' (which is completely in line with a 'BAAL GOD/LORD OF FORTUNE' as seen in the last chapter) rather than absolute, ultimate, deliverance. This is grievous but much worse than that is the DIVORCE of the name of the Father YHWH from his own work as revealed in the prophecies. Not for one minute would Yahwshua ever condone the notion that he CAME IN HIS OWN NAME DIVORCED FROM THE FATHER as it would not have been in line with the prophecies which TESTIFY TO TRUTH! Indeed, the Angel would have come to NAME HIM for NO OTHER REASON than to FIT THE PROPHECIES in regard to WHO HE WAS AND WHAT HE WOULD DO!
Allow me to elaborate more fully. The name Yeshua/Y'shua (spelled: yod shin waw ayin/heh) effeminates the Messiah (in Hebrew this is a feminine word). It limits or diminutizes the form of 'salvation' described as outlined above. And to re-iterate, is the most pugnacious form of perversion (which lends itself to the pagan concept of Jesus being 'God,' which is quite a different concept than a specifically prophesied and promised, messianic authority that would do SPECIFIC THINGS, many yet to be fulfilled as outlined in the WHOLE COUNSEL of scripture given for our instruction).
The scriptures say, as we shall see, that Yahwshua is the 'branch' that would come. He is the one who would lead us across the seas of the skies in the GREATER EXODUS for which the first was merely an ANTE-TYPE (according to the book of Hebrews). How and why would anyone wish to divorce this very significant name, with all of the history and associated promises in his regard so that they are FORGOTTON AND REPLACED? If one divorces the name of the 'messiah' from the father who sent him to do those specific things, well...they simply do not know the TRUE Messiah and because of this he will tell many 'I never knew you'. Why? Because they never knew him who is THE TRUTH of FATHER YHWH, PERSONIFIED...according to THE INSTRUCTION BOOK but rather have preferred ERROR AND FANTASY!
Hence what we have is another 'messiah' who is seen as acting apart from the father and his own, self-revelatory Commands. Or even better, he IS the father (and son, and spirit...all rolled into one nice package for the pagan/child like mind) and he did away with all those pesky customs, traditions, and commands that reveal THE TRUTH. I suppose this is OK if you want refuse to love the truth and want your ears tickled to hear that to which you have already become familiar and accustomed. But for any serious seeker of truth this is a SERIOUS STUMBLING BLOCK which men will be held accountable for propagating...ESPECIALLY NOW THAT YOU HAVE BEEN EXPOSED TO THE TRUTH!!!
It is YHWH who saves through his Messianically Anointed BRANCH...the ONE who came in the name of the FATHER according to the PATTERNS AND PROISES, and walked in accordance with all the commands and prophecies regarding him and the plan of the father YHWH and is KNOWN DISTINCLY from the Imposter by WHAT HE DOES ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPT. This is the only way to KNOW who the Messiah is...he is: YHWH hoshua/Yahwshua...YHWH SAVES...the WORD IN FLESH...call on NO OTHER NAME than 'YHWH' to be 'saved'!
It was always intended for us to understand who the Messiah would be ACCORDING TO THE PROPHECIES. 'Jesus' is a Satanic Counterfeit preached by LYING MAGICIANS WHO HAVE AN AGENDA TO DECEIVE (as we shall see) and worshipped in ignorance by those who ARE DECEIVED BY THEM; people who have not yet been freed by the TRUTH! Paul said: as long as the child is a babe, he is NO DIFFERENT THAN A SLAVE! (Gal. 4:1). He also said:
"when I was a baby I spoke like a baby; I became a man when I put childish things aside." 1 Cor. 13:11
This is also what I have done as I put into practice the truths I have been given. Truth is the key that unlocks the shackles of ignorance and deception that keep us UNABLE TO SEE AND OBEY YHWH ACCORDING TO HIS OWN EXPRESSED DESIRE! He who walks in the light he has will be given more; he who does not, even that which he has will be taken from him. This is nothing to play with friend, everyone will be held accountable for EVERY WORD they utter. Personally, wherever I come across the false name 'Jesus', I read it as Yahwshua which is the TRUTH rather than a Lie; which I do not intend to be guilty of propagating to the advantage of the deceiver, Satan.
So what we have seen so far is that there are several foundational errors. These errors seem inconsequential when looked at individually and certainly looked at with such myopic vision, the significance of these 'trifles' is lost upon our minds. But when these errors are multiplied and compounded by each other, as this thesis is attempting to demonstrate, they are understood to be the EVIDENCE that demonstrates the SATANIC CONSPIRACY that WAS PROPHESIED to exist in the end days which only the LOVE of the TRUTH would lead us OUT FROM; as the rest of the world lives in a POWERFUL DELUSION created by the SATANIC CONSPIRACY known as a CONTROVERSY OVER ZION.
We will be looking deeply into the prophecies regarding this conspiracy in order to understand where we are on YHWH's prophetic clock. Let's now take a look at an overview of the 'end-time' EliYah message which precedes the return of the Messiah (even as preceded his first advent in the form of John the Baptizer) according to prophecy given for our instruction.
